The Elections Act 2017 is a significant law, and as it is relevant to competitive exams in Pakistan, it is one of the most important laws. It describes the procedures for conducting elections, the Election Commission’s powers, the duties assigned to polling staff, and voters’ rights. Understanding the Elections Act 2017 will enhance your ability to perform on tests such as the FIA, CSS, PMS, NAB, Judiciary, and other relevant government jobs. This multiple-choice question book contains the most significant questions from the Elections Act 2017 with answers and logical explanations that are aimed to help you learn quickly and represent your knowledge with confidence. Find below the key MCQs of the Election Act 2017.
MCQs of the Election Act 2017
These are the most important MCQs regarding the Election Act 2017. These are important and also picked from the competitive examinations. So if you learn about these questions, you can easily get good marks.
1. What is the primary purpose of the Elections Act, 2017?
A. To regulate local governments only
B. To consolidate and unify all election laws
C. To create political parties
D. To reform the judicial system
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Details: The Elections Act 2017 brought together multiple election-related laws under one unified framework. Its purpose is to remove confusion and inconsistencies in earlier laws. It defines powers, procedures, preparations, and conduct of elections. The Act ensures standardization across all electoral activities in Pakistan.
2. Which authority is responsible for conducting elections under the Act?
A. Supreme Court
B. Prime Minister’s Office
C. Election Commission of Pakistan (ECP)
D. Parliament
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Details: The ECP has full control over election administration according to the law. Its powers include supervising, organizing, and ensuring fair elections. It works independently of government influence. The Act strengthens the ECP’s autonomy to maintain transparency.
3. What is the minimum age required for voter registration under the Elections Act 2017?
A. 16 years
B. 17 years
C. 18 years
D. 21 years
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Details: Any citizen 18 or older may be registered as a voter. This ensures all adults have the right to participate in the democratic process. The requirement is tied to possession of a valid CNIC. The law ensures inclusivity for all eligible citizens.
4. Who has the authority to prepare and revise electoral rolls?
A. NADRA
B. Provincial Governments
C. District Commissioners
D. Election Commission of Pakistan
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Details: The ECP maintains complete authority over electoral rolls. NADRA only provides data but cannot finalize voter lists. This ensures consistency and accuracy across the country. Electoral rolls must be updated before each general election.
5. Which body is responsible for delimitation of constituencies?
A. District Returning Officer
B. National Assembly
C. ECP
D. Provincial Assemblies
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Details: The Act gives the ECP full authority to delimit constituencies. Delimitation ensures fair population distribution among seats. It strengthens representational equality. Transparency in delimitation is central to credible elections.
6. How often must electoral rolls be updated under the Act?
A. Every 3 months
B. Every 6 months
C. Before every general election
D. Every 10 years
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Details: Regular updates reduce errors and ensure accuracy. This ensures people who turn 18 or relocate are included. The Act emphasizes timely and complete revisions. It is vital for maintaining trust in the electoral process.
7. What is the role of a District Returning Officer (DRO)?
A. Prepare election laws
B. Supervise Returning Officers in the district
C. Appoint the caretaker government
D. Count votes at the national level
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Details: DROs coordinate district-level election administration. They support ROs and ensure smooth implementation of ECP guidelines. They handle logistics and procedural oversight. DROs are essential for district-wide election consistency.
8. Who accepts and scrutinizes nomination papers?
A. DRO
B. RO (Returning Officer)
C. ECP Chairman
D. Speaker of National Assembly
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Details: ROs are designated to scrutinize nominations for each constituency. They verify documents, eligibility, and compliance with legal criteria. Their scrutiny is vital to filter out ineligible candidates. Their decisions can be challenged through appeals.
9. How long is the scrutiny period for nomination papers?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 5 days
D. 7 days
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Details: The Act provides a clear timeline to ensure fairness and timely processing. Candidates are given reasonable opportunity to defend their cases. The scrutiny process aims to validate eligibility transparently. It helps maintain trust in candidate selection.
10. Which section deals with objections on nomination papers?
A. Section 60
B. Section 62
C. Section 63
D. Section 64
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Details: This section outlines how objections must be filed and dealt with. It creates a structured procedure for handling disputes. The RO must record specific reasons for accepting or rejecting objections. It ensures transparency and accountability in scrutiny.
11. What is the deposit fee for National Assembly candidates under the Act?
A. Rs. 10,000
B. Rs. 20,000
C. Rs. 30,000
D. Rs. 50,000
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Details: The deposit fee discourages non-serious candidates from contesting. It also provides a standardized mechanism across constituencies. The amount is returned if the candidate secures the minimum required votes. This maintains seriousness in participation.
12. What is the maximum campaign expense allowed for National Assembly candidates?
A. 1 million
B. 2 million
C. 4 million
D. 6 million
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Details: Spending limits ensure fairness among candidates. Wealthy individuals cannot dominate campaigning unfairly. The Act requires candidates to record all expenses. Violation can lead to disqualification.
13. Which method is used to fill reserved seats in the Assemblies?
A. Direct elections
B. Lottery system
C. Proportional representation based on party seats
D. Presidential nomination
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Details: Parties submit priority lists to the ECP. Reserved seats are allocated based on general seats won. This system ensures inclusivity for women and minorities. It reflects party strength in the Assembly.
14. What is the role of a Presiding Officer?
A. Issue CNICs
B. Conduct polling at the polling station
C. Verify nomination papers
D. Compile electoral rolls
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Details: Presiding Officers ensure polling is fair and organized. They manage polling staff and handle ballot papers. They also maintain order at polling stations. Their role is critical for ground-level election integrity.
15. When does the polling begin under the Act?
A. 7 AM
B. 8 AM
C. 9 AM
D. 10 AM
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Details: Polling time is fixed to ensure consistency nationwide. A uniform time avoids confusion for voters. It also helps security and administrative planning. Timely opening of polls is essential for transparency.
16. What is the closing time for polling?
A. 4 PM
B. 5 PM
C. 6 PM
D. 7 PM
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Details: The closing time allows a reasonable window for all voters. Anyone inside the premises by 6 PM must be allowed to vote. Fixed timings help prevent manipulation. They also streamline vote-counting schedules.
17. Who is authorized to challenge the counting process?
A. Journalists
B. Police officers
C. Polling agents
D. General public
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Details: Polling agents represent candidates and oversee counting. Their right to challenge ensures transparency. They can demand recounts at specific polling stations. Their presence builds trust in final results.
18. When can a candidate request a recount?
A. If votes are equal
B. If results are extremely close
C. If irregularities are observed
D. All of the above
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Details: Recounts ensure accuracy where doubts arise. The RO must provide reasons for approval or rejection. Recounts strengthen confidence in results. They are an essential safeguard in competitive constituencies.
19. Which section deals with Election Offences?
A. Sections 150–157
B. Sections 160–165
C. Sections 167–175
D. Sections 180–185
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Details: These sections list offences such as bribery, personation, and undue influence. They define penalties and legal consequences. Strict enforcement discourages illegal activities. This ensures a cleaner electoral process.
20. Bribery in elections is punishable with:
A. Fine only
B. Imprisonment only
C. Both fine and imprisonment
D. Warning only
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Details: Bribery undermines free choice of voters. Strict penalties discourage manipulation. The Act recognizes bribery as a major threat to democratic fairness. Enforcement is crucial for credible elections.
21. What does personation mean?
A. Voting multiple times
B. Voting as another person
C. Counting wrongly
D. Influencing polling staff
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Details: Personation is a serious election offence. It includes pretending to be another registered voter. This act damages the credibility of voting systems. Severe penalties help protect electoral integrity.
22. Which section defines illegal practice?
A. Section 164
B. Section 165
C. Section 166
D. Section 167
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Details: Illegal practices are less severe than corrupt practices but still punishable. These include violating campaign rules and unauthorized expenditure. They maintain fairness in the electoral environment. These laws ensure equal opportunity for all candidates.
23. What is the maximum punishment for corrupt practices?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
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Details: Corrupt practices include bribery, threats, and manipulating votes. These actions threaten the democratic process. Therefore, strict imprisonment penalties exist. It ensures candidates follow ethical standards.
24. Who hears election petitions?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court Tribunals
C. Election Tribunals
D. Provincial Assemblies
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Details: Election Tribunals are special bodies to resolve disputes. They operate under judicial standards. Their timely decisions are essential to closing election disputes. This mechanism ensures legal clarity after elections.
25. What is the time limit to file an election petition?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
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Details: The 30-day limit ensures timely resolution of disputes. It prevents prolonged uncertainty about election outcomes. Candidates must gather evidence quickly. This deadline keeps the legal process efficient and effective.
26. What is the time limit for an Election Tribunal to decide an election petition?
A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 180 days
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Details: The Act requires Tribunals to decide petitions within 180 days. This keeps the electoral process timely and avoids long political uncertainty. Quick resolution ensures candidates and voters know the legitimate winner. It also strengthens the legal credibility of elections.
27. Under the Act, who appoints Election Tribunals?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. ECP in consultation with Chief Justice of High Court
D. Federal Government
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Details: This process maintains judicial independence while ensuring electoral expertise. The collaboration ensures qualified judges are appointed. Election Tribunals must be impartial and efficient. This system protects the fairness of election dispute resolution.
28. What is the maximum allowed expenditure for Provincial Assembly candidates?
A. 2 million
B. 3 million
C. 4 million
D. 5 million
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Details: The Act sets spending limits to maintain fairness among candidates. These limits prevent wealthy candidates from gaining undue advantage. The rule also encourages transparency in financial reporting. Violations may result in disqualification or penalties.
29. Candidates must submit details of election expenses within how many days after the poll?
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days
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Details: Timely submission of expenses ensures financial transparency. It helps the ECP verify compliance with spending limits. Proper records prevent corrupt or undue influence. This promotes cleaner and fairer elections.
30. Who can challenge a candidate’s election expenses?
A. Police
B. Media
C. Any contesting candidate
D. Voters only
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Details: The Act allows rival candidates to review expenses and file objections. This creates checks and balances among contestants. Transparency in financial matters builds trust among voters. It reduces hidden or illegal campaign financing.
31. What is the punishment for personation?
A. Fine only
B. Imprisonment up to 3 years
C. Imprisonment up to 6 months
D. Warning only
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Details: Personation is considered a severe electoral offence. It violates voter rights and compromises election integrity. Strict punishment acts as a deterrent against fraudulent voting. It protects the credibility of the entire election system.
32. Which section prohibits canvassing near a polling station?
A. Section 167
B. Section 171
C. Section 174
D. Section 182
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Details: The Act forbids campaigning within a specified radius of polling stations. This prevents voter harassment or undue influence on polling day. A peaceful environment ensures voters can cast ballots freely. This rule is central to maintaining polling neutrality.
33. What is the minimum percentage of women that political parties must award general seats tickets?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
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Details: This ensures the inclusion of women in the electoral process. Parties must comply before contesting elections. It promotes gender representation in Pakistan’s political landscape. The rule encourages women to participate actively in politics.
34. Which section defines the misuse of government resources?
A. Section 170
B. Section 175
C. Section 182
D. Section 187
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Details: This section prevents candidates from using public funds or state machinery. Misuse of resources creates unfair advantage. Strong restrictions ensure equal competition among all contestants. Violations may result in penalties and disqualification.
35. Under the Act, who may issue the election schedule?
A. Federal Government
B. High Court
C. ECP
D. Speaker of National Assembly
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Details: The ECP decides and issues the election schedule independently. This includes dates for nomination, scrutiny, appeals, and polling. The independence ensures elections are free from political manipulation. It guarantees a fair and predictable electoral timeline.
36. What is the minimum age for a candidate to contest National Assembly elections?
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years
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Details: The age requirement aligns with constitutional eligibility criteria. It ensures maturity and capability for legislative responsibilities. The requirement is consistent across Pakistan. It maintains uniform standards for parliamentary candidates.
37. How long does a candidate have to withdraw their nomination after scrutiny?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
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Details: The Act provides a short, clear window to facilitate final candidate lists. This prevents prolonged delays in election scheduling. Candidates may withdraw voluntarily to avoid splitting party votes. It stabilizes the contesting field early.
38. Which section deals with the preparation of polling schemes?
A. Section 58
B. Section 59
C. Section 60
D. Section 61
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Details: Polling schemes include the assignment of polling stations and voters. They help organize smooth polling day operations. DROs and ROs prepare schemes under ECP supervision. This helps ensure accessibility for voters.
39. Ballot papers must be printed under the supervision of:
A. NADRA
B. Treasury Department
C. ECP and Returning Officers
D. District Administration
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Details: Strict oversight prevents fraud or unauthorized printing. Ballot paper control is essential for transparency. The Act mandates secure printing and storage. It preserves the integrity of the voting process.
40. Who may appoint polling agents?
A. Chief Minister
B. Contesting candidates
C. DRO
D. Police Department
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Details: Polling agents observe polling and counting procedures. Their role is to safeguard their candidate’s interest. They ensure transparency in vote handling. Their presence reduces the chance of irregularities.
41. What is the penalty for disorderly conduct near polling stations?
A. Fine only
B. Up to 1 year imprisonment
C. Up to 2 years imprisonment
D. Cancellation of CNIC
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Details: Disorderly conduct disrupts smooth election operations. Such behavior can threaten voters or staff. Penalties maintain order and protect polling staff. This provision ensures safe voting conditions.
42. Who issues the final consolidated results?
A. Presiding Officer
B. Returning Officer
C. DRO
D. ECP Headquarters
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Details: ROs compile all polling station results. They prepare the final consolidated statement. Their results form the legal basis for declaring winners. The process ensures accuracy and fairness.
43. Which form contains the provisional results of the constituency?
A. Form 42
B. Form 45
C. Form 47
D. Form 49
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Details: Form 47 displays the preliminary results prepared by the RO. It includes results from all polling stations. The form is essential for transparency in vote compilation. It is publicly displayed to inform all stakeholders.
44. Which form contains the final results of the returned candidate?
A. Form 48
B. Form 49
C. Form 50
D. Form 51
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Details: Form 49 officially declares the winning candidate. It finalizes the election outcome for the constituency. The RO prepares this after completing consolidations. It is submitted to the ECP for notification.
45. What is the maximum punishment for undue influence?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
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Details: Undue influence includes threats, coercion, or preventing a voter from voting freely. It is a serious electoral offence. The law aims to protect voters’ independence. Strong penalties reinforce democratic rights.
46. Which section prohibits obstructing election officials?
A. Section 171
B. Section 173
C. Section 174
D. Section 184
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Details: Obstruction of officials can delay or sabotage elections. The Act protects officials performing election duties. Penalties act as a deterrent for disruptive elements. Ensuring staff safety is essential for smooth polling.
47. Returning Officers must provide copies of Form 45 to:
A. Police
B. Media
C. Polling agents
D. General public
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Details: Form 45 contains polling station-level results. Providing copies ensures transparency in vote counting. Polling agents can compare these with consolidated results. This helps prevent tampering or discrepancies.
48. What does Section 57 relate to?
A. Delimitation
B. Polling schemes
C. Election schedule
D. Candidate appeals
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Details: Section 57 authorizes ECP to issue election schedules. It covers timelines for nomination, scrutiny, appeals, and polling. The section ensures elections follow a structured timeline. It is fundamental to election administration.
49. Which section outlines the process for recounting?
A. Section 89
B. Section 90
C. Section 91
D. Section 92
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Details: Section 89 details when and how recounts may be requested. It ensures transparency where results are contested. ROs must record reasons for accepting or rejecting requests. This reinforces trust in final results.
50. Appeals against RO decisions must be filed within:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
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Details: The tight deadline encourages rapid resolution of disputes. Delays could disrupt the election timeline. The appeals process ensures fairness for candidates. It promotes a transparent and accountable system.
51. Which section prohibits government officials from participating in political activities?
A. Section 174
B. Section 175
C. Section 186
D. Section 187
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Details: Section 186 ensures neutrality of government servants during elections. This prevents bias and misuse of authority. The provision protects the fairness of the democratic process. It promotes equal opportunity for all candidates.
52. What is considered an election campaign violation under the Act?
A. Holding corner meetings
B. Conducting door-to-door visits
C. Using government vehicles for campaigns
D. Distributing flyers
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Details: Use of government machinery creates unlawful advantage. The Act strictly forbids use of public resources. This rule promotes level playing field among candidates. Violations result in penalties or disqualification.
53. Who can file objections during the scrutiny of nomination papers?
A. Only ECP officers
B. Only opposing candidates
C. Any person present at scrutiny
D. Only political parties
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Details: This ensures transparency in candidate qualification. Allowing public objections prevents hidden irregularities. The RO must record and decide all objections. It reinforces public confidence in the nomination process.
54. What happens if a candidate fails to submit election expenses?
A. Nothing happens
B. A warning is issued
C. Candidate may be disqualified
D. ECP refunds deposit
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Details: Maintaining expense records is a legal obligation. It ensures financial transparency in campaigning. The ECP takes violations seriously. Disqualification is a strong deterrent against financial misconduct.
55. What is the form number for polling station statements of the count?
A. Form 42
B. Form 45
C. Form 46
D. Form 47
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Details: Form 45 contains the initial results from each polling station. It is provided to polling agents to guarantee transparency. Comparing Form 45 with consolidated results helps detect discrepancies. It is one of the most crucial forms in the election system.
56. Which form contains the ballot paper account?
A. Form 44
B. Form 46
C. Form 48
D. Form 49
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Details: This form tracks the number of ballots issued and used. It helps verify whether any manipulation took place. Both ROs and Presiding Officers use this form for auditing. It adds strong accountability during the counting process.
57. What is the role of an Assistant Presiding Officer?
A. Declare final results
B. Assist in running polling booth and issuing ballots
C. Approve nomination papers
D. Prepare polling scheme
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Details: Assistant Presiding Officers help maintain smooth polling operations. They ensure ballots are issued correctly and voter lists are followed. Their role reduces workload of the Presiding Officer. This improves efficiency at crowded polling stations.
58. How many days before polling must polling schemes be published?
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
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Details: Early publication gives voters time to locate their polling stations. It prevents confusion on election day. Timely availability ensures smooth administrative planning. This requirement supports voter convenience and transparency.
59. Which section prohibits interference with polling staff?
A. Section 173
B. Section 174
C. Section 176
D. Section 181
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Details: Interference with polling officers disrupts election discipline. The Act punishes anyone who obstructs officials. This ensures polling staff can function safely and confidently. It strengthens overall election fairness.
60. Under what condition can the ECP postpone polling in a constituency?
A. Weather change
B. Minor disputes
C. Law and order situation or natural disaster
D. Media request
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Details: The Act allows postponement only in severe circumstances. This protects voters and staff from danger. The decision ensures polling remains free and fair. Rescheduling avoids compromised electoral conditions.
61. What is the punishment for capturing a polling station?
A. Fine only
B. 6 months imprisonment
C. 1 year imprisonment
D. Up to 3 years imprisonment
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Details: Polling station capture is a serious electoral crime. It undermines the democratic rights of all voters. Strict punishment is necessary to prevent such threats. The Act aims to ensure complete security at polling places.
62. Which section defines corrupt practices?
A. Section 165
B. Section 167
C. Section 171
D. Section 173
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Details: Corrupt practices include bribery, impersonation, and coercion. These actions harm the fairness of elections. The section outlines severe penalties for offenders. It helps maintain honesty in electoral competition.
63. Which action is considered undue influence?
A. Putting posters
B. Giving speeches
C. Threatening a voter
D. Conducting rallies
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Details: Undue influence involves pressuring voters to choose a candidate. It violates the principle of voter freedom. The Act strongly penalizes such actions. It ensures that voters can decide without fear.
64. The result consolidation process must be completed within how many hours of polling?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
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Details: Timely consolidation ensures transparency and trust in results. It prevents unnecessary delays that may lead to controversies. ROs must complete the procedure promptly. This is essential for smooth announcement of winners.
65. What is the purpose of Form 48?
A. To list rejected votes
B. To issue provisional results
C. To prepare consolidated results
D. To declare winning candidate
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Details: Form 48 compiles polling station results into one summary. It ensures accuracy in constituency-level counting. Candidates and agents can compare it with individual station results. It is a key transparency document.
66. Who is eligible to challenge consolidated results?
A. Any citizen
B. Only winning candidate
C. Any contesting candidate
D. Media representatives
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Details: This ensures fairness for all contestants. Claims of irregularities must be addressed through legal channels. It strengthens the credibility of final outcomes. Candidates can file objections with the RO.
67. Which section deals with the secrecy of the ballot?
A. Section 78
B. Section 81
C. Section 83
D. Section 86
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Details: The secrecy of the ballot is a core principle of free elections. It prevents coercion or undue influence. Violations are treated as serious offences. The law ensures every voter’s privacy is protected.
68. What is the punishment for violating ballot secrecy?
A. Fine only
B. 3 months imprisonment
C. 6 months imprisonment
D. Up to 1 year imprisonment
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Details: Protection of voter secrecy is crucial for democratic integrity. The penalty discourages attempts to compromise privacy. It ensures voters can cast ballots without fear. Strict enforcement protects the system.
69. Which section prohibits canvassing on polling day?
A. Section 170
B. Section 171
C. Section 173
D. Section 174
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Details: Canvassing near polling stations influences voters unfairly. The Act prevents such interference to maintain neutrality. Violators may face punishment or removal by authorities. This ensures peaceful and unbiased voting.
70. Under the Act, who issues the notification of the returned candidate?
A. Returning Officer
B. DRO
C. ECP Headquarters
D. Speaker of Assembly
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Details: After receiving Form 49 from the RO, the ECP issues the official notification. This confirms the legal status of the winning candidate. The notification allows the candidate to take oath. It finalizes the electoral process.
71. Which form lists voters assigned to a polling station?
A. Form 1
B. Form 28
C. Form 33
D. Form 45
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Details: Form 33 is the electoral roll extract for each polling station. It helps polling staff verify voter identity. The document is necessary for managing voter flow. It supports an organized and lawful polling process.
72. What is the penalty for double voting?
A. Fine only
B. 6-month imprisonment
C. Up to 1-year imprisonment
D. Up to 3-year imprisonment
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Details: Double voting undermines electoral fairness. Strict punishment acts as a deterrent. The law protects equal voting rights for all individuals. It ensures integrity in ballot casting.
73. Who prepares the list of polling stations for a constituency?
A. Presiding Officer
B. Returning Officer
C. District Election Commissioner
D. DRO
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Details: The RO ensures that polling stations are accessible and adequate. The list must comply with ECP guidelines. This process helps voters know where to cast ballots. It ensures smooth polling day operations.
74. Which section prohibits disorderly conduct in polling stations?
A. Section 169
B. Section 170
C. Section 171
D. Section 173
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Details: Disorderly behavior threatens voter safety. The law protects polling staff and voters. This ensures peaceful and fair polling. Violators face penalties to maintain discipline.
75. When MUST a presiding officer stop polling?
A. If the RO orders it
B. If turnout is low
C. If violence occurs or the booth is captured
D. If media demands
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Details: The Safety of voters and staff is most important. The Act empowers presiding officers to act immediately. Stopping polling avoids compromised results. Authorities later take steps to re-poll.
76. Which section allows the ECP to conduct re-polling?
A. Section 52
B. Section 55
C. Section 59
D. Section 70
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Details: Re-polling ensures fairness where irregularities occur. The ECP takes decisions based on detailed reports. It protects the legitimacy of election outcomes. Voters are informed through public notices.
77. A candidate loses their deposit if they secure less than what percentage of the total votes?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
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Details: This discourages non-serious candidates from contesting. It keeps the ballot paper manageable. Losing the deposit is meant to filter out genuine contestants. It adds responsibility to candidate decisions.
78. Which section deals with results consolidation?
A. Section 89
B. Section 90
C. Section 91
D. Section 92
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Details: Consolidation is the process of combining all polling station results. ROs must complete this with full transparency. Observers and agents are allowed to witness the process. This ensures trust in final outcomes.
79. Which action counts as “illegal practice”?
A. Personation
B. Threatening voters
C. Exceeding campaign spending limits
D. Booth capturing
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Details: Illegal practices are less severe than corrupt practices. They include violations that affect fairness indirectly. Spending violations distort a level playing field. The law imposes fines and other penalties.
80. Which action counts as “corrupt practice”?
A. Cutting posters
B. Door-to-door visits
C. Bribery of voters
D. Delayed expense submission
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Details: Corrupt practices directly manipulate voter choice. Bribery compromises the free will of voters. These are serious offences under the Act. Strict penalties ensure honest competition.
81. Which section prohibits printing of fake ballot papers?
A. Section 170
B. Section 172
C. Section 174
D. Section 178
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Details: Fake ballot papers can destroy election credibility. The law imposes harsh penalties for this act. Printing must occur under strict supervision. This protects the integrity of the electoral process.
82. What is the role of polling agents during counting?
A. Running the booth
B. Observing counting procedures
C. Verifying CNICs
D. Issuing ballot papers
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Details: They act as watchdogs for candidates. Their presence increases trust in counting. They may raise objections on irregularities. This creates transparent and accountable counting.
83. Which section prohibits tampering with ballot boxes?
A. Section 171
B. Section 172
C. Section 173
D. Section 174
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Details: Tampering with ballot boxes is a serious electoral crime. It directly damages the integrity of votes. Strict punishment prevents such manipulation. The rule helps ensure ballot security.
84. What is the time limit for issuing Form 45 after counting?
A. Immediately
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 6 hours
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Details: Immediate issuance ensures transparency. Polling agents must receive copies promptly. Delays create suspicion or controversy. Fast distribution builds trust in the process.
85. Which form is used to count postal ballots?
A. Form 10
B. Form 11
C. Form 12
D. Form 13
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Details: Postal ballots must be counted separately. The form ensures clear documentation. It prevents mixing with regular ballots. It maintains integrity for special categories of voters.
86. Who is eligible for postal voting?
A. Overseas Pakistanis
B. Government servants on duty
C. Teachers
D. Minors
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Details: Postal voting is limited to specific categories. These include people unable to appear in person due to official duties. It ensures their right to vote is protected. This system supports inclusivity.
87. Which section deals with the destruction of election material?
A. Section 190
B. Section 191
C. Section 192
D. Section 193
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Details: Election material destruction threatens transparency. The Act lists strict penalties. Such actions can invalidate results in severe cases. It ensures full accountability.
88. How long must election material be preserved?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
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Details: Preservation allows timely audits or investigations. It prevents tampering or loss of evidence. ROs must store material securely. This strengthens trust in election results.
89. Who issues instructions for election observers?
A. NAB
B. Supreme Court
C. ECP
D. Ministry of Interior
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Details: Observers monitor transparency and fairness. The ECP regulates its duties and access. This helps maintain credibility in elections. Observers contribute to democratic accountability.
90. Which observers are allowed inside polling stations?
A. Media only
B. Public only
C. Accredited observers
D. Any citizen with a CNIC
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Details: Accreditation ensures observers are trained and neutral. It prevents crowding or interference. Their presence is essential for monitoring fairness. They provide impartial reports to the ECP.
91. Who can appoint election agents?
A. DRO
B. ECP officials
C. Contesting candidates
D. Police officers
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Details: Election agents represent candidates in all legal and administrative matters. They play a key role in monitoring processes. Their presence ensures transparency at multiple stages. They also file objections on behalf of candidates.
92. Which form is the list of contesting candidates?
A. Form 32
B. Form 33
C. Form 34
D. Form 44
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Details: Form 34 contains the final list after withdrawals. It helps voters and authorities know the final candidate lineup. The form is mandatory for transparency. It finalizes the competitive field.
93. Who approves polling staff appointment?
A. Police station chiefs
B. DRO
C. Deputy Commissioner
D. Local body members
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Details: DROs ensure polling staff are unbiased and qualified. This guarantees fair execution of polling duties. The appointments must comply with ECP directives. It maintains neutrality at polling stations.
94. Which section deals with the misconduct of police officers during elections?
A. Section 185
B. Section 186
C. Section 187
D. Section 188
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Details: Misconduct by police officers can severely impact fairness. The law penalizes such behavior harshly. It ensures police remain neutral and supportive of ECP. The section protects voter safety.
95. Which section prohibits transferring public money for influencing elections?
A. Section 181
B. Section 184
C. Section 186
D. Section 189
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Details: Spending public funds for campaigning is strictly forbidden. This prevents misuse of government authority. The rule ensures no candidate receives an unfair advantage. It promotes equal competition in elections.
96. Which section ensures disabled voters receive assistance?
A. Section 80
B. Section 82
C. Section 84
D. Section 86
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Details: Disabled voters may receive help marking the ballot. This ensures their participation is respected. The helper must follow strict secrecy rules. This provision encourages inclusive elections.
97. Who marks indelible ink on voters?
A. Polling agent
B. Police officer
C. Assistant Presiding Officer
D. Election observer
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Details: Indelible ink prevents multiple voting attempts. It is an internationally accepted safeguard. The officer applies ink after voter’s identity is confirmed. This strengthens the integrity of the voting process.
98. Who is responsible for maintaining order inside polling stations?
A. Polling agents
B. Presiding Officer
C. Observers
D. Police representative
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Details: The presiding officer has full authority to manage polling station discipline. They may remove disruptive individuals. This ensures a peaceful environment for voters. The role is essential for fair and secure voting.
99. What is the punishment for destroying ballot papers?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. Up to 3 years imprisonment
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Details: Destroying ballots is an attack on democracy. Strict punishment prevents such sabotage. It ensures votes remain intact and countable. Protection of ballots is a core component of electoral integrity.
100. What is the ultimate goal of the Elections Act, 2017?
A. Increase political party funding
B. Allow the government to control elections
C. Ensure free, fair, transparent, and inclusive elections
D. Reduce voter participation
➥ Show Answer
Details: The Act aims to modernize and unify election laws. It strengthens the authority and independence of the ECP. It ensures every citizen has equal access to a fair electoral process. The law builds trust in Pakistan’s democratic institutions.
This set of 100 MCQs on the Elections Act 2017 encapsulates all the major areas of substance, including nomination, scrutiny, polling, counting, electoral offences, and announcement of results. If you undertake regular revisions of these questions, the law will become much clearer, and your performance in comparative examinations will be greatly enhanced. You can use these MCQs for rapid revision, practice tests, or interview preparation.